MCQs in Prosthodontics

Chapter 2: Removable Partial Denture

 

1- Who created the terms for Glossary of Prosthodontics:

  1. The World Dental Association
  2. The American Dental Association
  3. The British Dental Association
  4. The Federation of Prosthodontic Organization
  5. None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

 

2- Partial Dentures require support. which of the following serves that purpose:

  1. Abutment tooth/teeth and residual ridge
  2. Soft tissue and mucosa
  3. Dual support both-soft tissue and tooth support
  4. A and C only
  5. all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: E

 

3- Which of the following describes an Interim Denture:

  1. Dental Prosthesis to be used for a short time for esthetic purposes.
  2. Dental prosthesis for short for conditioning the patient to accept an artificial substitute for missing natural teeth.
  3. A dental prosthesis to be used for a short period for mastication and phonetics.
  4. All of the above.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

 

 4- When you're talking about retention, which of the following can be used as an abutment:

  1. Tooth structure.
  2. Part of the tooth structure.
  3. Part of the implant that serves as support.
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

 

5- Which of the following is a type of temporary RPD:

  1. Interim
  2. Transitional
  3. Treatment
  4. A and B only
  5. all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: E

 

6- The most crucial rule in Kennedy's classification is:

  1. The largest tooth in the arch.
  2. The most posterior tooth in the arch.
  3. The 1st tooth to be lost.
  4. The most anterior tooth in the arch.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

7- Which of the following defines Kennedy Class III:

  1. A unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
  2. A unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth, both anterior and posterior.
  3. A single bilateral edentulous area located anterior to the remaining teeth.
  4. A and C.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

8- Which of the following defines Kennedy Class VI:

  1. An edentulous area bonded anteriorly and posteriorly by natural teeth but in which the anterior abutment is not suitable for support.
  2. An edentulous arch in which the teeth anterior to the space are capable of total support of the required prosthesis.
  3. Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
  4. A and C.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

9- The most common type of arch is:

  1. Class I.
  2. Class II.
  3. Class III.
  4. Class IV.
  5. They are all the same.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

10- Which type of RPD is a tooth-supported RPD:

  1. Class I.
  2. Class II.
  3. Class III.
  4. Class IV.
  5. C, and D.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

11- Which of the following cases are not considered in Kennedy's classification:

  1. When the third molar is absent and not to be replaced.
  2. If a second molar is missing and is not to be replaced.
  3. All of the above.
  4. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

12- A 50 years old patient comes to your clinic with only the lower 1st molar present in the upper arch. which type of Kennedy's classification would you consider that:

  1. Class I mod-1.
  2. Class IV mod-2.
  3. Class III mod-2.
  4. Class II mod-2.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

13- One of the drawbacks of Kenney's classification is that it doesn't consider:

  1. Visualization
  2. Differentiation between tooth-borne and tooth tissue supported.
  3. Length of the edentulous spaces.
  4. Universal acceptance.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

14- The most important rule in Kennedy's classification is:

  1. The largest tooth in the arch.
  2. The most posterior tooth in the arch.
  3. The 1st tooth to be lost.
  4. The most anterior tooth in the arch.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

15- Which of the following defines Kennedy Class III:

  1. A unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
  2. A unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth, both anterior and posterior.
  3. A single bilateral edentulous area located anterior to the remaining teeth.
  4. A and C.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

16- Which of the following defines Kennedy Class VI:

  1. An edentulous area bonded anteriorly and posteriorly by natural teeth but in which the anterior abutment is not suitable for support.
  2. An edentulous arch in which the teeth anterior to the space are capable of total support of the required prosthesis.
  3. Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
  4. A and C.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

17- The most common type of arch is:

  1. Class I.
  2. Class II.
  3. Class III.
  4. Class IV.
  5. They are all the same.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

18- Which type of RPD is a tooth-supported RPD:

  1. Class I.
  2. Class II.
  3. Class III.
  4. Class IV.
  5. C, and D.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

19- Which of the following cases are not considered in Kennedy's classification:

  1. When third molar is absent and not to be replaced.
  2. If a second molar is missing and is not to be replaced.
  3. All of the above.
  4. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

20- A 50 years old patient comes to your clinic with only the lower 1st molar present in the upper arch. which type of Kennedy's classification would you consider that:

  1. Class I mod-1.
  2. Class IV mod-2.
  3. Class III mod-2.
  4. Class II mod-2.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

21- One of the drawbacks of Kenney's classification is that it doesn't consider:

  1. Visualization.
  2. Differentiation between tooth borne and tooth tissue supported.
  3. Length of the edentulous spaces.
  4. Universal acceptance.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

22- One of the features of a major connector is that it has to be:

  1. soft
  2. Rigid
  3. Bulky
  4. Flexible
  5. All of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

23- When designing a RPD with a palatal major connector, a relief should always be done in which of the following cases:

  1. Gingival areas.
  2. Palatal tori.
  3. Rigid area.
  4. Rugae area.
  5. All of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

24- Fill in the blank. One of the main advantages of the major palatal connector is that it has .............. which allows the fabrication of the same anatomic contours as the patient's own palate.

  1. Irregular surface area.
  2. Thick metal plate.
  3. Thin metal plate.
  4. Corrugated plate.
  5. All of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

 25- When designing an RPD, the main reason for designing occlusal rests is:

  1. To provide stability.
  2. To maintain the components in one position.
  3. To distribute occlusal loads to the abutment teeth and to resist vertical forces.
  4. To make the partial denture tooth-supported.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

26- The shape of the occlusal rest on a  canine tooth should be:

  1. Triangular
  2. Rounded
  3. Flat
  4. Any of the above
  5. None of the above

 

 

 

 

The answer is: E (it should be V shaped, the apex of the "V" pointing incisally).

 

27- When designing an RPD, the retentive tip of the clasp should be placed on:

  1. The junction of the medial and occlusal 1/3rd of the crown.
  2. The middle 1/3rd of the crown.
  3. The occlusal 1/3rd of the crown.
  4. The cervical 1/3rd of the crown.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

 

28- Which of the following materials is the best for taking an impression for an RPD:

  1. Plaster of Paris.
  2. Elastomers.
  3. Reversible hydrocolloid.
  4. Impression compound.
  5. A and C.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

29- The guiding planes made on the surface of the enamel should be made:

  1. Flat.
  2. Rounded.
  3. It should not be made parallel to long axis of abutment teeth.
  4. Should not be prepared.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

30- When designing an RPD, the occlusal rest should be:

  1. On the proximal surface of the abutment tooth.
  2. On the marginal ridge at 90 degrees to the long axis of the abutment tooth.
  3. Parallel to the pontic.
  4. Parallel to long axis of the abutment tooth.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

31- The main reason for using a reciprocal clasp arm is:

  1. Stabilisation of the RPD.
  2. Retention of the RPD.
  3. To counteract the forces transmitted by the retentive arm.
  4. All of the above.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

32- When designing a clasp retained RPD with a tilted abutment tooth, a complete crown is usually made on the abutment tooth to:

  1. Prevent the caries under the clasp arm.
  2. Resist force of occlusion.
  3. Provide favorable contour of the abutment tooth.
  4. All of the above.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

33- The indirect retainers of an RPD should be placed:

  1. On the opposite side of the fulcrum line of the denture base and much away from the direct retainer.
  2. Opposite side the fulcrum line of the denture base close to the direct retainer
  3. In line with the direct retainers and close to the direct retainer.
  4. Are not necessary if direct retainers are given.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

34- The best way to provide stability to the RPD is by designing a:

  1. Harmonious occlusion.
  2. Retentive arm.
  3. Reciprocal arm.
  4. Using anatomical pontics.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

35- What is the purpose of using an indirect retainer:

  1. To stabilize the RPD against lateral movements.
  2. Minimise the movement of denture away from the supporting tissue.
  3. Minimise the movement of denture towards the supporting tissues.
  4. To prevent setting down of major connector.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

36- One of the features of the major connector in a RPD is that it should be:

  1. Able to function as stress breaker.
  2. Rigid to connect bilateral components of RPD.
  3. Able to act as indirect retainer.
  4. Able to function as direct retainer.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

37- Surveying of casts for denture design:

  1. Is carried out for complete and partial dentures
  2. Is only carried out for cobalt-chrome dentures
  3. Is used to determine the occlusal vertical dimension
  4. Is used to determine undercuts with respect to the path of insertion of a denture
  5. Is carried out with the model at right angles to the analyser rod

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

   

38- The lower denture bearing area has different compressibility. Which in your opinion is the most compressible tissue in the lower arch:

  1. Buccal shelf
  2. Premylohoid region
  3. Labial sulcus
  4. Retromolar pad
  5. Alveolar ridge

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

  

39- There are many impression techniques which are used in recording impressions of the edentulous areas. Which impression technique will be used in a patient with a sharp mandibular ridge?

  1. Minimum pressure impression technique
  2. Selective pressure impression technique
  3. Excessive pressure impression technique
  4. All of the above of impression techniques

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

40- A patient is referred to the prosthodontist with complaint of a newly made denture which is loose and causes soreness even after repeated adjustments. What is the most important protocol to follow in such a case?

  1. To check the occlusion
  2. To take another impression denture immediately
  3. To relieve the denture at the sore spots
  4. To ask the patient to use denture fixatives
  5. To tolerate the denture

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

   

41- On a review appointment it is observed that there is deposition of calculus on one side of the denture. this indicates that:

  1. The patient is not cleaning his denture on that side
  2. The occlusion is not correct and patient the eats on one side only
  3. The patient salivates too much
  4. The patient continuously wears his dentures
  5. No denture hygiene instructions were given to the patient

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

 42- All of the following are considered to be basic rules for occlusal rest design when fabricating a removable partial denture except:

  1. The rest should minimise the tilting action of the appliance
  2. The rest must be placed so that it will prevent movement of the appliance in a cervical direction
  3. The rest should transmit stress down the long axis of the abutment
  4. The rest must have sharp angles to permit maximum retention
  5. Occlusal rest is not essential

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: D

 

43- For the preparation of rest seat:

  1. Marginal ridge should be reduced by 2.5mm
  2. Marginal ridge should be reduced by 1.5mm
  3. The outline to have greater width than length
  4. The outline to have greater length than width
  5. No preparation is required

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

44- A device that relieves the abutment teeth, to which a fixed or removable partial denture is attached, of all or part of the forces generated by occlusal function is called a:

  1. Pontic
  2. Stress breaker
  3. Major connector
  4. Minor connector
  5. Retainer

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

45- When designing palatal major connectors, relief should be given for:

  1. Palatal torus
  2. Ridge area
  3. Elevated mid suture line
  4. Rugae area
  5. Gingival areas

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: A

 

46- Labial bar is indicated when:

  1. There is a diastema
  2. There is Labial inclination of teeth
  3. There is Lingual inclination of teeth
  4. There are Periodontally weak teeth
  5. The lips are incompetent

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

 

47- The superior border of lingual bar should lie:

  1. Deep in the lingual sulcus
  2. At least 4 mm below the gingival margin
  3. At the cingulum of anterior teeth
  4. At least 7 mm below the gingival margin
  5. In the floor of the mouth

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

48- One of the steps of preparation of the master cast before casting is beading. What is the purpose of beading of the maxillary cast:

  1. To transfer the major connector design with a visible outline
  2. To give strength to the casting
  3. To provide intimate tissue contact
  4. To provide for undercuts
  5. To strengthen the cast

 

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: C

  

49- While selecting overdenture abutment preference is given to:

  1. Posterior abutments
  2. Anterior abutments
  3. There is no reason for any preferences
  4. Overdenture is not a good alternative treatment
  5. Submerged roots

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: B

 

50- A patient is seen with all maxillary teeth removed and lower arch intact. However, the lower molars are supra erupted, so that the occlusion plane is not level, what should be done in such a case?

  1. The occlusal plane of the natural teeth must be made level
  2. The artificial teeth must be set to contact only the highest parts of natural teeth
  3. The teeth should be prepared so that cross arch balancing contacts are possible
  4. Onlays to alter the shape and height of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth
  5. All the above

 

 

 

 

 

The answer is: E